Monday, 23rd July 2018
23 July 2018

Day 9 – Lesson 14 – PG NEET Microbiology MCQs 14 – Immunity

PG NEET Microbiology MCQs 14 – Immunity

1. A patient is kept on ceftriaxone and amikacin ESBL Klebsiella infection. What will you do next?

  1. continue with the same antibiotic but with a higher dose
  2. change ceftriaxone and add ceftazidime
  3. start imipenem in the place of ceftriaxone
  4. remove amikacin

Ans (3)

2. Immunoglobulin that helps in opsonisation

  1. IgA
  2. IgG
  3. IgD
  4. IgE

Ans (2)

3. True about antibody

  1. IgM is produced in primary response
  2. IgD protects mucosa
  3. IgE is the main antibody in secondary response
  4. IgG is the main antibody in secondary response
  5. IgA protects body surface

Ans (18)

4. The drug against ESBL producing Pseudomonas

  1. ceftriaxone + piperacillin
  2. ceftriaxone + tazobactam
  3. piperacillin + tazobactam
  4. ceftriaxone + piperacillin + tazobactam

Ans (3)

5. The serum concentration of which of the subclass of IgG is maximum

  1. IgG1
  2. IgG2
  3. IgG3
  4. IgG4

Ans (1)

6. Which antibody deficiency causes recurrent infection by an organism with a polysaccharide capsule

  1. IgA
  2. IgG1
  3. IgG2
  4. IgM

Ans (19)

7. Minimum inhibitory concentration(MIC) can be calculated by all the following antibiotic sensitivity test except

  1. E test
  2. agar dilution method
  3. Kirby Bauer’s disc diffusion method
  4. broth dilution method

Ans (3)

8. Which IgG can cross the placenta

  1. IgG1
  2. IgG2
  3. IgG3
  4. IgG4

Ans (1)

9. Which of the following antibody shows anamnestic response

  1. IgA
  2. IgM
  3. IgG
  4. IgD

Ans (20)

10. For antibiotic sensitivity the organism broth prepared should match with

  1. Mc Farland’s standard 0.5
  2. Mc Farland’s standard 1
  3. Mc Farland’s standard 2
  4. Mc Farland’s standard 3

Ans (1)

11. Which of the following is not shared between T and B cells

  1. positive selection during development
  2. class 1 MHC receptors
  3. antigen-specific receptors
  4. all the others are right

Ans (1)

12. Which antibodies are found in cryoglobulinemia

  1. IgG
  2. IgM
  3. IgE
  4. IgA

Ans (22)

13. Beta-lactamase is produced by

  1. E coli
  2. gonococcus
  3. Staphylococcus aureus
  4. all the above

Ans (4)

14. A possible source of the second signal to a B cell bound by a specific antigen includes

  1. EB virus
  2. endotoxin
  3. antigen-specific T cells
  4. plasma cells

Ans (3)

15. Cold antibody is

  1. IgA
  2. IgG
  3. IgE
  4. IgM

Ans (23)

16. Which of the following disease is/are  not toxin-mediated

  1. diphtheria
  2. tetanus
  3. pertussis
  4. anthrax
  5. syphilis

Ans (5)

17. IgG is produced from class switching from which immunoglobulin

  1. IgD
  2. IgE
  3. IgA
  4. IgM

Ans (4)

18. Pentameric antibody with a J chain is

  1. IgA
  2. IgG
  3. IgM
  4. IgE

Ans (26)

19. A strain of E coli isolated from urine is resistant to third-generation cephalosporins. The mechanism of development of resistance is

  1. .extended spectrum beta-lactamase
  2. decreased permeability
  3. active efflux of beta-lactam agent
  4. alteration of PBP

Ans (1)

20. When a B cell undergoes immunoglobulin class switching

  1. the variable region of the light chain changes but its constant regions remains the same
  2. the variable region of the light chain remains the same  but its constant regions changes
  3. the variable region of the heavy chain remains the same but its constant regions changes
  4. the variable region of the heavy chain changes but its constant regions remains the same

Ans (3)

21. Type of graft best suited for renal transplant

  1. allograft
  2. autograft
  3. xenograft
  4. isograft

Ans (4)

22. Superantigen is produced by all the pathogens except

  1. Staphylococcus aureus
  2. Enterococcus faecalis
  3. Rabies virus
  4. HIV

Ans (2)

23. Synthesis of immunoglobulin in membrane-bound or secretory form is determined by

  1. 1 turn- 2 turn joining rule
  2. class switching
  3. differential RNA processing
  4. allelic exclusion

Ans (3)

24. Xenograft

  1. a transplant from one region of a body to another region in human
  2. a transplant from one person to a genetically identical person
  3. a transplant from one species to another species
  4. transplant  from one species to another species

Ans (4)

25. The heterophile antibody is found in

  1. Weil Felix test
  2. widal test
  3. standard agglutination test
  4. all

Ans (1)

26. The main aim of an adjuvant is to increase

  1. distribution
  2. absorption
  3. antigenicity
  4. metabolism

Ans (3)

27. Cell type which lacks HLA

  1. monocyte
  2. platelets
  3. neutrophil
  4. RBC

Ans (4)

28. In contact dermatitis which cells plays a major role

  1. T cells
  2. B cells
  3. macrophages
  4. Langerhans cells

Ans (1)

29. What is the percentage of immunoglobulin in plasma protein

  1. 5-10%
  2. 10-15%
  3. 15-20%
  4. 25-30%

Ans (3)

30. MHC class II molecule are found on

  1. virtually all cells in the body
  2. B cells dendritic cells and macrophages
  3. only gamma interferon-activated cells
  4. virtually all nucleated cells in the body
  5. only on virally infected cells

Ans (2)

31. Type I lepra reaction is

  1. type I hypersensitivity reaction
  2. type II
  3. type III
  4. type IV

Ans (4)

32. The variable portion of an immunoglobulin

  1. amino-terminal
  2. carboxy-terminal
  3. acid terminal
  4. amoxy terminal

Ans (1)

33. What is the role of class II MHC proteins or donor cells in the process of graft rejection

  1. they are recognized by helper T cells which then activate cytotoxic T cells to kill the donor cells
  2. they are the receptors of interleukin 2 which is produced by macrophages when they attack the donor cells
  3. they cause the release of perforins to lyse the cells
  4. they induce IgE which mediates graft rejection

Ans (1)

34. Delayed hypersensitive reaction includes all except

  1. contact hypersensitivity
  2. lepromin test
  3. graft rejection
  4. arthis reaction

Ans (4)

35. Vaccination is based on the principle of

  1. agglutination
  2. phagocytosis
  3. immunological memory
  4. clonal detection

Ans (3)

36. Each of the following statements concerning class II MHC proteins is correct except

  1. they are found on the surface of both B and T cells
  2. they have a high degree of polymorphism
  3. they are involved in the presentation of antigen by macrophages
  4. they have a binding site for CD4 proteins

Ans (1)

37. In tuberculin test there is

  1. immediate hypersensitivity
  2. delayed hypersensitivity
  3. type V reaction
  4. type VI reaction

Ans (1)

38. Antibody diversity is due to

  1. gene rearrangement
  2. gene translocation
  3. antigenic variation
  4. CD40 molecules
  5. mutation

Ans (1,5)

39. Atopy is mediated by

  1. IgE
  2. IgG
  3. IgM
  4. IgD

Ans (1)

40. All the following are type III hypersensitive reaction

  1. arthus reaction
  2. serum sickness
  3. Goodpasture’s syndrome
  4. SLE

Ans (3)

41. All the following statement about hybridoma technology are true except

  1. specific antibody-producing cells are integrated with myeloma cells
  2. myeloma cells in salvage pathway grows well in HAT medium
  3. aminopterin a folate antagonist inhibits de nove pathway
  4. HGPRTase and thymidylate synthetase are required for salvage pathway

Ans (2)

42. Which animal is most susceptible to anaphylaxis

  1. guinea pig
  2. monkey
  3. rat
  4. mouse

Ans (1)

43. Antigen-antibody reaction is prominent in

  1. Loeffler’s syndrome
  2. Zollinger Ellison syndrome
  3. bronchiectasis
  4. serum sickness

Ans (4)

44. In which of the following the two alleles are inherited together

  1. idiotype
  2. genotype
  3. phenotype
  4. allotype
  5. isotype

Ans (4)

45. In anaphylaxis

  1. antigen cell bound/antibody free
  2. antigen free/antibody cell bound
  3. antigen free/antibody free
  4. none

Ans (2)

46. Which of the following is type II antigen-antibody reaction

  1. anaphylaxis
  2. Koch’s phenomenon
  3. Goodpasture’s syndrome
  4. thyrotoxicosis

Ans (112)

47. When papain cleaves IgG antibody it produces

  1. 2 Fab and 1Fc
  2. 2 Fab and 2Fc
  3. 1 Fab and 1Fc
  4. 1 Fab and 2Fc

Ans (1)

48. Example of type 1 hypersensitive reaction

  1. lepromin test
  2. tuberculin test
  3. Casoni’s test
  4. arthus reaction

Ans (3)

49. Example of type 2 hypersensitivity is

  1. a patient with berylliosis
  2. a patient with heat intolerance, sinus tachycardia and proptosis of eye
  3. eczematous reaction on the dorsum of the foot in a patient who washed his socks with a new detergent
  4. glomerulonephritis in a patient with SLE

Ans (2)

50. True about immunoglobulin is

  1. IgG has max conc in serum
  2. IgM has max conc in serum
  3. IgA has max conc in serum
  4. IgE has max conc in serum

Ans (1)

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